FVM in 1-D
Just a quick question, in FVM the divergence theorem is applied for the volume intergrals to convert them to spherical integrals. For the case of a spherical geometry what would the divergence be?
Also, since divergence theorem is not applied for 1-D, what whould this be for a spherically symmetric case?
|All times are GMT -4. The time now is 01:49.|