||January 20, 2012 09:32
Favre average and mean(rho/mean(rho))=1
I'm rather new to the CFD field so I have a rather basic and probably really simple question:
How can I show that the Favre average of the Favre fluctuation is zero? While I have found some help, all seem to skip one issue I have. People show
where the line is Reynolds average and the '' is the Favre fluctuation. But how is this done? While I can do that in principle, one little detail is always skipped. Everything reduces to
. While this looks convincing, I have no idea how to show it. It looks similar to one of the Reynolds assumption
but it's not the same as far as I can see.