|July 8, 2010, 14:58||
fvm vs. fvc
Join Date: Jun 2009
Posts: 65Rep Power: 8
I have a question about something I read in the programmer's guide. At the page P-41 (1.5 version) the first equation of the 2.4.9 section is :
solve(fvm::laplacian(phi) == f)
and it is said that the Poisson equation is solved explicitly. But if fvm has been used should it be solved implicitly has it is explained in figure 2.6?
|July 8, 2010, 15:35||
Join Date: Apr 2009
Location: Winnipeg, Canada
Posts: 407Rep Power: 13
I think it is saying: if you are solving something explicitly, it goes into the source term. The laplacian is solved implicitly in this example.
The programmer's guide has not been kept up to date for more than six years (I think). I would not put too much faith in it.
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