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andimb April 7, 2006 11:31

Hi, I have a question to th

I have a question to the new Version of the Spalart-Allmaras turbulence model.

1. What is the advantage to use
+ fvm::div(phi_, nuTilda_)
- fvm::Sp(fvc::div(phi_), nuTilda_)
(means phi_ grad nuTilda_) rather than
+ fvm::div(phi_, nuTilda_)
in the nuTilda equation.

2. What is is the advantage of the new implementation? I wasn't able to find this formulation somewhere. Is it still a kind of a "Low-RE" model.


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