CFD Analysis of Airfoil at Mach = 0.0
Hi folks
I want to perform a 2D airfoil CFD analysis at Reynolds number of 9.0M and Mach number 0.0. Is this possible? 
No.
Check your numbers, there must be a typo. Mach number = 0.0 means your velocity is zero. 
Technically yes, as the Mach number is just a function of the compressibility of the fluid. If you have not turned the energy equation on, the physics modelled disregard any compressibility effects, and therefore Ma = 0. Effectively, the bulk modulus and ratio of specific heats go to infinity; but your velocity can still be nonzero.
You can set your Re by changing the fluid viscosity, scaling the model (to achieve a specific L) or modifying the velocity. Assuming Ma = 0 for low Ma numbers (~<0.3) is common and generally accepted within the industry. Hope this helps, Stu 
Ok, thats true. If you have M = v/a with a = infinity. But if you artificially remove the speed of sound from your equations, it does not seem appropriate to me to use the phrasing "Mach number" at all. Maybe this is the common practice :(.

Rodriguez,
You're right, I think it is quite illogical to think of modelling a flow with Ma = 0.0; but I bet if Ali had said "incompressible flow", you would have no problem realising what he meant. Ma = 0.0 is just a bad (or at least, unnatural) way of saying flow is incompressible! Stu 
Absolutely! I'm no "airodynamics"guy, so thanks for the free lecture :)

What if, you put the very very very large enclosure (order of 500 as compared to body characteristic length) and specify the same static and total pressure (101325 pa to be specific)?
In fact we did this for the Fan simulation, by specifying this condition so that we can truly model the engine and atmosphere. Although the flow in the vicinity of fan was not with Mach = 0.0. Therefore it is just a technique to model the flow with real boundary conditions. What you guys think about this? 
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Flow is incompressible (M < 0.3), So what will be the velocity then for M=0.0. 
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