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lost.identity October 13, 2010 13:48

FVM in 1-D

Just a quick question, in FVM the divergence theorem is applied for the volume intergrals to convert them to spherical integrals. For the case of a spherical geometry what would the divergence be?

\int_t\int_V \nabla\cdot\boldsymbol{F}\,dVdt = \int_t\int_S\boldsymbol{F}\cdot\boldsymbol{n}\,dSdt

Also, since divergence theorem is not applied for 1-D, what whould this be for a spherically symmetric case?

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