lost.identity |
October 13, 2010 13:48 |
FVM in 1-D
Hi,
Just a quick question, in FVM the divergence theorem is applied for the volume intergrals to convert them to spherical integrals. For the case of a spherical geometry what would the divergence be?
Also, since divergence theorem is not applied for 1-D, what whould this be for a spherically symmetric case?
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