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Curle Analogy Function object

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October 22, 2021, 06:33	Curle Analogy Function object	#1
AlbertoArtoni New Member Alberto Artoni Join Date: Oct 2019 Posts: 7 Rep Power: 4	I was trying to understand why the Curle analogy is implement as it has been implemented: $p' = \frac{1}{4\pi} \frac{\mathbf{r}}{\|\mathbf{r}\|^2}\large( \frac{\mathbf{F}}{\|\mathbf{r}\|} + \frac{1}{c_0}\frac{d\mathbf{F}}{dt} \large) .$ The actual formulation by Curle can be seen as: $p' = \frac{1}{4\pi}\nabla\cdot\nabla\cdot \int_{V} \frac{\mathbf{T}}{r} dV - \frac{1}{4\pi}\nabla\cdot \int_{\partial V} (\frac{p'\mathbf{I}}{r}) \cdot \mathbf{n} d\partial V$ I can see that if we are far enough, we can replace the divergence with $-\frac{1}{c_0}\frac{\mathbf{r}}{\|\mathbf{r}\|}\frac{\partial}{\partial t}$ . I don't understand: 1) why was the volume term omitted 2) from where the term $\frac{\mathbf{F}}{\|\mathbf{r}\|}$ comes from. Thanks!

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