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Pascal_doran July 8, 2010 14:58

fvm vs. fvc
Hi all,

I have a question about something I read in the programmer's guide. At the page P-41 (1.5 version) the first equation of the 2.4.9 section is :

solve(fvm::laplacian(phi) == f)

and it is said that the Poisson equation is solved explicitly. But if fvm has been used should it be solved implicitly has it is explained in figure 2.6?

Thank you,


marupio July 8, 2010 15:35

I think it is saying: if you are solving something explicitly, it goes into the source term. The laplacian is solved implicitly in this example.

The programmer's guide has not been kept up to date for more than six years (I think). I would not put too much faith in it.

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